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Buy nowNone of this works properly for accounting purposes. It still ends up in Unapplied Payments Expense. To be clear. There is no outstanding Vendor Credit. I don't want it on the books. The Vendor gave me back my money and I deposited in my bank. I just want to record that and have it apply to the appropriate Chart of Accounts.
It's a simple process. However, since you guys are "behind the scenes" creating phony bills and bill payments to accomplish this and apparently you are doing it wrong your system creates a bill payment with no corresponding bill so you then auto classify as "Unapplied". Your system is doing it wrong. The only reason I created a deposit to an Accounts Payable Account that's the way you force me to do it so I can link it to the Vendor Credit.
I'll just do it as a journal entry for now so I don't get written up in an audit for this screwed up process for a simple concept. Case in point, you guys do it correctly for a refund going back to my credit card. I don't know why you can't do the same for a cash or check refund. It's the exact same type of transaction except of going back to a credit card it goes to a bank account. However, have a simple way for one and a convoluted way for the other--and your convoluted way is wrong from an accounting stand point.
Your statement " Ensure you categorize the deposit to an income account, such as Refund to Customer. The deposit transaction is enough for this situation and you'll never see the Unapplied Cash Payment Expense account in your Profit and Loss report." Doesn't apply here. I'm not at the point of refunding the customer yet because I'm still trying to get the refund from the vendor to ME entered correctly. Your process for refunding to a customer is also broken but that's a whole other thread.
If I only do the vendor credit and don't map it to a bank deposit it shows as a pending credit from the vendor and my books are off by the $65.